IELTS 7 March 2026 Prediction sheet

IELTS 7 March 2026 Prediction sheet

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IELTS LISTENING – FULL REVISION MANUAL

(7 March – Easy to Moderate Expectation)

Test Structure

• 4 Parts

• 40 Questions

• 1 play only

• 10 minutes transfer (paper-based)

Part 1 → Everyday social context

Part 2 → Monologue (public info)

Part 3 → Academic discussion

Part 4 → Academic lecture

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PART 1 – FORM / NOTE / TABLE COMPLETION

Common Question Types

• Form Completion

• Note Completion

• Table Completion

How to Solve – Step-by-Step

1. Before Audio

– Read instructions (ONE WORD? TWO WORDS AND A NUMBER?)

– Predict grammar

“Mr ____” → surname

“Cost: £ ____” → number

“Type of course: ____” → noun

2. During Audio

– Listen for spelling

– Watch for corrections

– Write fast but clearly

3. After

– Check plural/singular

– Check articles (a/an not needed unless allowed)

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PART 1 – EXAMPLES

Example 1 – Form Completion

Name: Daniel ______

Address: 24 ______ Street

Membership type: ______

Audio:

“His surname is Harris… that’s H-A-R-R-I-S. He lives at 24 King Street. He wants the standard membership, not premium.”

Answers:

HARRIS

KING

STANDARD

Trap

Audio: “not premium.”

Wrong answer many write: PREMIUM

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Example 2 – Note Completion

Course: Business ______

Start date: 15th ______

Fee: £ ______

Audio:

“The course is Business Management. It begins on the 15th of July. The total fee is £320.”

Answers:

MANAGEMENT

JULY

320

Common Errors

• Writing “320 pounds” when limit is ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER

• Writing JULY 15 (wrong format)

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PART 1 DOS

• Write in CAPITALS

• Focus on spelling

• Expect numbers, dates, names

PART 1 DON’TS

• Don’t overthink

• Don’t ignore word limit

• Don’t panic if you miss one

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PART 2 – MULTIPLE CHOICE / MAP LABELLING / MATCHING

Usually a monologue (tour guide, campus talk, museum info).

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MULTIPLE CHOICE – METHOD

1. Underline differences in options

2. Listen for elimination

3. Expect first idea to be wrong

Example 1

Why was the park renovated?

A To reduce noise

B To attract tourists

C To improve safety

Audio:

“At first we wanted to attract more tourists, but after several incidents, safety became our priority.”

Answer: C

Trap

Option B mentioned first → incorrect

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Example 2

What is included in the ticket price?

A Lunch

B Guided tour

C Transport

Audio:

“The guided tour is included. Lunch is extra, and transport must be arranged separately.”

Answer: B

Trap words

extra

separately

not included

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MAP LABELLING – METHOD

1. Identify starting point

2. Follow directions

3. Watch left/right carefully

Key Direction Words

• opposite

• beside

• adjacent to

• at the corner of

• beyond

• directly behind

Example

Audio:

“From the entrance, turn left. The information desk is opposite the café.”

Answer: Information desk opposite café

Common Trap

Left/right reversal

Missing one movement

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MATCHING – METHOD

Often matching speakers to opinions.

Example

Speaker A: “I found the course challenging but rewarding.”

Speaker B: “It was too theoretical for my liking.”

Statements:

1 Prefers practical learning

2 Enjoyed academic difficulty

Answers:

1 – B

2 – A

Trap

Two speakers may express similar tone but different reasoning.

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PART 2 DOS

• Track location visually

• Stay focused

• Cross out eliminated options

PART 2 DON’TS

• Don’t choose first mentioned

• Don’t assume logical answer

• Don’t drift mentally

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PART 3 – ACADEMIC DISCUSSION

Usually 2–3 speakers. Harder vocabulary.

Common Types

• Multiple Choice

• Matching Information

• Sentence Completion

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MULTIPLE CHOICE – ADVANCED

Example

Why did the experiment fail?

A Equipment malfunction

B Poor planning

C Insufficient participants

Audio:

“The equipment worked perfectly. The issue was that we didn’t recruit enough participants.”

Answer: C

Trap

Equipment mentioned first → reject

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MATCHING INFORMATION

Students match opinions to speakers.

Example

Speaker A: concerned about cost

Speaker B: focused on deadline

Speaker C: worried about accuracy

Statements:

1 Emphasises time pressure

2 Concerned about financial limits

Answers:

1 – B

2 – A

Trap

Speakers may change opinion mid-sentence.

Listen for:

“Actually…”

“On second thought…”

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PART 3 DOS

• Identify speakers early

• Notice opinion words

• Listen for agreement/disagreement

PART 3 DON’TS

• Don’t confuse speaker voices

• Don’t assume equal speaking time

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PART 4 – LECTURE

No pauses. One speaker. Fast.

Common Types

• Note Completion

• Summary Completion

• Table Completion

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METHOD

1. Predict word type

2. Follow structure

3. Listen for signposting

Signposting Words

• Firstly

• In contrast

• As a result

• For example

• In conclusion

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Example

Lecture: Urbanisation

Notes:

Main cause: rural ______

Effect: increased ______ levels

Solution: improved public ______

Audio:

“The primary cause is rural migration. One effect is increased pollution levels. The solution lies in improved public transport.”

Answers:

MIGRATION

POLLUTION

TRANSPORT

Trap

Writing “migration from villages” (too many words).

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PART 4 DOS

• Keep writing

• Focus on structure

• Stay calm if you miss one

PART 4 DON’TS

• Don’t stop listening

• Don’t try to recall earlier answer during lecture

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COMMON LISTENING TRAPS SUMMARY

• Correction language

• Plural vs singular

• British spelling

• Similar sounding words

• Numbers changing

Example Number Trap

“Was it 15 or 50?”

Answer: 50

Example Spelling Trap

“Smith… that’s S-M-I-T-H.”

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FINAL 24-HOUR LISTENING CHECKLIST

Revise

• Direction vocabulary

• Spelling common words

• Tense awareness

Practise

• One full test

• Transfer answers carefully

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IELTS READING – FULL REVISION MANUAL

(7 March – Academic & General Training)

Time: 60 minutes

No extra transfer time

40 questions

Golden Rule:

Reading is logic + time control. Not intelligence.

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ACADEMIC READING

PASSAGE 1 (Moderate)

Likely Types:

• True / False / Not Given

• Matching Information

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1. TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN

How to Solve – Exact System

Step 1: Identify keyword in statement

Step 2: Find location in passage

Step 3: Compare meaning word by word

Never answer from memory. Only from text.

Example 1

Text:

“Many employees prefer flexible working hours.”

Statement:

All employees prefer flexible hours.

Answer: FALSE

Reason: “Many” ≠ “All”

Example 2

Text:

“The new system reduced costs in urban areas.”

Statement:

The system reduced costs nationwide.

Answer: NOT GIVEN

Reason: No mention of nationwide.

Example 3

Text:

“Online shopping has significantly increased over the past decade.”

Statement:

Online shopping has decreased recently.

Answer: FALSE

Common Traps

• Extreme words: always, never, all

• Similar wording but opposite meaning

• Adding extra information

DO

• Focus on exact meaning

• Treat each statement independently

DON’T

• Assume

• Use outside knowledge

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2. MATCHING INFORMATION

Question Style:

Which paragraph contains the following information?

How to Solve

Step 1: Underline key concept in question

Step 2: Scan paragraphs for synonyms

Step 3: Match idea, not vocabulary

Example

Paragraph A: discusses brain adaptation

Paragraph B: discusses workplace fatigue

Paragraph C: discusses cognitive benefits

Question:

1 Reference to neurological change → A

2 Evidence of mental exhaustion → B

3 Argument technology improves skills → C

Trap

One paragraph may match more than one question.

DON’T

• Assume first paragraph = first answer

• Read full passage slowly

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PASSAGE 2

Likely Types:

• Matching Headings

• Sentence Completion

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3. MATCHING HEADINGS

How to Solve

Step 1: Read headings first

Step 2: Read first sentence of paragraph

Step 3: Identify central theme

Example

Paragraph: explains benefits of public transport on pollution

Correct heading: Environmental impact of transport policy

Wrong heading: Growth of city population

Reason: minor detail only

Trap

Examples mislead you.

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4. SENTENCE COMPLETION

Rule:

Take words directly from text

Check grammar

Example

Text:

“Public facilities improve overall community well-being.”

Question:

Public facilities enhance community ______.

Answer: well-being

If limit = ONE WORD

Do not write “overall well-being”

Common Trap

Students change word form incorrectly.

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PASSAGE 3 (Hardest)

Likely Types:

• Summary Completion

• Multiple Choice

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5. SUMMARY COMPLETION

How to Solve

Step 1: Identify word type needed

Step 2: Locate summary section

Step 3: Copy exact word

Example

Text:

“Urban residents experience higher stress levels due to density.”

Summary:

City dwellers face increased ______ as a result of crowding.

Answer: stress

Trap

Paraphrased heavily.

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6. MULTIPLE CHOICE (ACADEMIC)

How to Solve

Step 1: Read options carefully

Step 2: Eliminate wrong choices

Step 3: Find supporting sentence

Example

What is the writer’s main argument?

A Technology reduces intelligence

B Technology redistributes cognitive skills

C Technology has no impact

Text:

“…may not diminish intelligence but redistribute cognitive resources.”

Answer: B

Trap

Option A partially mentioned but rejected.

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GT READING

More practical. Faster reading required.

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SECTION 1

Likely:

• Form Completion

• Multiple Choice

Texts: advertisements, notices.

Example

Notice:

“Applications must be submitted before 5 pm on Friday.”

Question:

Deadline for application: ______

Answer: 5 pm Friday

Trap

Students write “before Friday” (incomplete).

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SECTION 2

Likely:

• Matching Information

• Matching Headings

Texts: workplace policies, guidelines.

Example

Policy states:

“Employees must wear protective gear in hazardous areas.”

Statement:

Safety clothing is compulsory in dangerous zones.

Answer: YES (if opinion-based) or correct paragraph match

Trap

Synonyms: hazardous = dangerous

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SECTION 3

Likely:

• Yes / No / Not Given

• Summary Completion

Difference from T/F/NG

YES/NO = writer’s opinion

Example

Text:

“The author strongly supports remote working.”

Statement:

The writer believes remote work is beneficial.

Answer: YES

Statement:

Remote work increases productivity in all sectors.

Answer: NOT GIVEN

Trap

Students confuse fact vs opinion.

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TIME STRATEGY (ACADEMIC)

Passage 1 → 15 min

Passage 2 → 20 min

Passage 3 → 25 min

Never spend 10 minutes stuck on one question.

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COMMON READING MISTAKES

• Reading full passage deeply first

• Ignoring word limit

• Choosing based on opinion

• Changing answer without evidence

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FINAL 48-HOUR READING PLAN

Revise:

• T/F/NG logic

• Heading identification

• Summary grammar fit

• Yes/No difference

Practise:

• 1 full academic test

• 1 GT section 3

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IELTS WRITING – FULL REVISION MANUAL

(7 March – Academic & GT)

Time: 60 minutes

Task 1 → 20 minutes

Task 2 → 40 minutes

Task 2 carries more marks.

Golden Rule:

Clarity > Complexity. Structure > Fancy words.

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ACADEMIC TASK 1

Likely:

• Bar chart

• Line graph

• Table

What Examiner Wants

• Clear overview

• Accurate comparison

• No opinion

Structure

1. Introduction (Paraphrase question)

2. Overview (Main trends only)

3. Body Paragraph 1 (Key comparisons)

4. Body Paragraph 2 (Secondary data)

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HOW TO WRITE INTRO

Question:

The bar chart shows the number of students enrolled in three courses between 2015 and 2020.

Sample Introduction:

The block diagram illustrates the learns  who enrolled in three different courses from 2015 to 2020.

(No opinion. No extra details.)

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HOW TO WRITE OVERVIEW

Overview must include:

• Highest / lowest

• Overall trend

• Major contrast

Example (Line graph):

Overall, enrolment in Course A surged steadily over the period, whereas the figure for Course C declined significantly. Course B remained relatively stable.

No numbers in overview.

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BODY PARAGRAPH EXAMPLE

In 2015, approximately 200 students registered for Course A, compared with just 120 in Course C. By 2020, the number for Course A had risen to nearly 350, while Course C fell below 100.

Focus on comparison words:

• whereas

• while

• in contrast

• respectively

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COMMON TASK 1 MISTAKES

• Listing numbers randomly

• No overview

• Giving opinion

• Overusing “increase”

Avoid repetition:

rise

grow

climb

surge

decline

drop

fall

remain stable

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TASK 1 MINI PRACTICE

Data shows:

2010 → 100

2020 → 250

Sentence:

The figure rose significantly from 100 in 2010 to 250 in 2020.

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GT TASK 1 – SEMI-FORMAL LETTER

Likely:

• Complaint

• Request

• Explanation

Structure

1. Opening purpose

2. Details

3. Request / Action

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Opening Example

I am writing to express my dissatisfaction regarding the recent issue with…

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Complaint Example

I recently purchased a washing machine from your store; however, it stopped functioning after just two days of use.

I would appreciate it if you could arrange a replacement at your earliest convenience.

Tone:

Polite but firm.

No slang.

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COMMON GT TASK 1 ERRORS

• Too informal (“Hey”)

• Too aggressive tone

• No clear request

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TASK 2 ESSAY (Academic + GT)

Likely Types:

• Discuss both views

• Agree / Disagree

• Advantages / Disadvantages

Structure (Universal)

Introduction, Clear position

Body 1

Body 2

Conclusion

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1. DISCUSS BOTH VIEWS

Question:

Some believe practical skills are more important than theoretical knowledge. Discuss both views and give your opinion.

Introduction Example:

Controversy is whether in hand skills should be prioritised in education, or theory remains essential. This essay will explain both perspectives and justify with examples why I support former.

Clear opinion must appear.

Body 1 → Explain View 1

Body 2 → Explain View 2 

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2. AGREE / DISAGREE

Question:

Technology has made people less social. Do you agree or disagree?

Thesis Example:

I fully agree that excessive reliance on technology has reduced face-to-face interaction, although it has also created new forms of communication.

Body paragraphs must support position clearly.

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3. ADVANTAGES / DISADVANTAGES

Structure

Intro

Advantages paragraph

Disadvantages paragraph

Conclusion

Example Sentence:

One major plus of remote working is increased flexibility, whereas a significant drawback is reduced team collaboration.

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HOW TO DEVELOP IDEAS

Bad:

This is bad for society.

Better:

This can negatively affect society by reducing opportunities for meaningful interpersonal communication, which is essential for emotional development.

Add:

Explanation + example.

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COMMON TASK 2 MISTAKES

• No clear position

• Repeating same idea

• Writing memorised essay

• Too many simple sentences

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COHERENCE CHECKLIST

Each body paragraph must have:

• Topic sentence

• Explanation

• Example

•point 2

Explain

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BAND 7+ REQUIREMENTS

• Clear argument

• Logical structure

• Some complex sentences

• Few grammar mistakes

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LAST 48-HOUR WRITING PLAN

Practise:

• 1 Task 1

• 1 Task 2 full essay

Revise:

• Essay structures

• Linking words

• Overview writing

Avoid:

• Learning new vocabulary list

• Changing your writing format

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IELTS SPEAKING – FULL REVISION MANUAL

(7 March – Jan–April Pool Rotation)

Test Duration: 11–14 minutes

Part 1 → 4–5 mins

Part 2 → 1 min prep + 2 mins speak

Part 3 → 4–5 mins discussion

Golden Rule:

Fluency + Development > Fancy Vocabulary.

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PART 1 – PERSONAL QUESTIONS

Topics likely from 1–70 pool

• Work / Studies

• Hobbies

• Technology

• Daily routine

• Food

• Friends

• Transport

Structure for Every Answer

1. Direct answer

2. Short explanation

3. Example or detail

Bad Answer:

Yes, I like cooking.

Better Answer:

Yes, I do. I particularly enjoy cooking on weekends because it helps me relax after a busy week. For example, I often experiment with simple pasta dishes at home.

Length target: 2–4 sentences.

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PART 1 EXAMPLES

Topic: Work

Q: Do you enjoy your work?

Answer:

I do, mainly because it allows me to interact with different people every day. It keeps my routine dynamic rather than repetitive, which I find motivating.

Topic: Technology

Q: Do you use your phone a lot?

Answer:

To be honest, I probably use it more than I should. Apart from communication, I rely on it for reading news and managing tasks, so it has become part of my daily routine.

Common Mistakes

• One-sentence answers

• Over-memorised responses

• Using very complex vocabulary unnaturally

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PART 2 – CUE CARD

Structure Formula

1. What it is

2. When / where

3. Details

4. Feelings

5. Result

Never list bullet points mechanically. Tell a short story.

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Sample Cue Card

Describe a useful skill you learned.

Model Answer Structure:

Introduction:

One useful skill I learned recently was time management.

Details:

I developed this skill during my university years when I had to balance academic work with part-time employment.

Explanation:

Initially, I struggled to meet deadlines, but gradually I learned how to prioritise tasks and plan my week effectively.

Feeling:

Over time, this gave me a sense of control and reduced my stress significantly.

Result:

As a result, I became more productive and confident in handling responsibilities.

Length: 1.5–2 minutes naturally.

Common Mistakes

• Finishing in 50 seconds

• Speaking too fast

• Ignoring feelings

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PART 3 – ABSTRACT DISCUSSION

This is where scores change.

Structure for Strong Answer

1. Direct opinion

2. Reason

3. Example

4. Wider implication

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Example Topic: Work–Life Balance

Q: Why is work–life balance important?

Answer:

In my view, maintaining a balance between professional and personal life is essential because it prevents long-term burnout. When individuals overwork continuously, their productivity and mental well-being tend to decline. For instance, many employees who lack balance eventually experience stress-related issues. Therefore, achieving equilibrium benefits both individuals and organisations.

Notice:

Opinion + explanation + example + conclusion.

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Example Topic: Technology

Q: Has technology reduced attention spans?

Answer:

To some extent, yes. The constant exposure to short-form content encourages people to consume information quickly rather than engage deeply. For example, many individuals now prefer brief videos over lengthy articles. This shift may gradually affect analytical thinking skills.

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PART 3 COMMON TRAPS

• Giving short answers

• Repeating Part 2 story

• No development

Examiners expect abstract thinking.

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FLUENCY STRATEGY

If stuck:

Use fillers naturally:

• I suppose…

• In my view…

• It depends on…

• To some extent…

Avoid robotic linking phrases.

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GRAMMAR CHECKLIST

Include:

• Conditionals

• Relative clauses

• Comparisons

Example:

People who maintain a healthy routine tend to be more productive than those who neglect rest.

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PRONUNCIATION TIPS

• Stress key words

• Avoid flat tone

• Speak clearly, not fast

Confidence > Speed.

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FINAL 48-HOUR SPEAKING PLAN

Practise:

• 5 Part 1 topics

• 3 cue cards timed

• 5 abstract Part 3 questions

Focus on:

• Structure

• Natural expansion

• Logical reasoning

Avoid:

• Memorising full scripts

• Using memorised idioms randomly

IELTS Reading passages similar to 14 Feb 2026 AC/ GT

IELTS Reading passages similar to 14 Feb 2026 AC/ GT

IELTS Academic Reading Passage 1: The Growth of Oil Production

The discovery and commercial exploitation of petroleum transformed the global economy more profoundly than almost any other resource in modern history. Although oil seeps were known in ancient civilisations, large-scale extraction began only in the mid-19th century, when technological innovation enabled systematic drilling. The 1859 well drilled in Pennsylvania is frequently cited as the birth of the modern oil industry, marking a shift from small-scale collection to industrial production.

Early oil demand was primarily linked to lighting. Kerosene rapidly replaced whale oil, reducing pressure on marine ecosystems while lowering household costs. However, the invention of the internal combustion engine in the late 19th century expanded petroleum’s importance exponentially. By the early 20th century, oil had become indispensable to transportation, mechanised warfare, and industrial manufacturing.

Production increased dramatically as new reserves were identified across North America, the Middle East, and later offshore environments. Advances in seismic surveying and drilling technologies allowed companies to access previously unreachable deposits. In particular, the discovery of vast reserves in Saudi Arabia during the 1930s shifted the geopolitical centre of oil production toward the Middle East.

The rapid expansion of oil output was not without volatility. Periodic oversupply caused price collapses, while geopolitical conflicts triggered sharp price spikes. The 1973 oil embargo, imposed by Arab members of OPEC, exposed the vulnerability of oil-importing nations and demonstrated the strategic power of resource control. In response, many countries began diversifying energy supplies and investing in domestic exploration.

By the late 20th century, global oil production had reached unprecedented levels. Yet concerns about resource depletion, environmental degradation, and climate change increasingly shaped policy debates. Although proven reserves remain substantial, extraction costs are rising as easily accessible fields decline. Unconventional sources such as shale oil and deepwater drilling have extended supply but introduced environmental risks and economic uncertainty.

Today, oil continues to dominate global energy consumption despite growing investment in renewable alternatives. Analysts disagree on whether production has peaked or will continue to expand due to technological innovation. What remains clear is that oil’s trajectory has been defined as much by political forces as by geological constraints.

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Questions 1–5

Do the following statements agree with the information in the passage?

Write:

TRUE

FALSE

NOT GIVEN

1. Large-scale oil extraction began in ancient civilisations.

2. The internal combustion engine increased global demand for oil.

3. The Middle East became central to oil production before 1900.

4. The 1973 embargo revealed weaknesses in oil-importing countries.

5. Proven oil reserves are expected to run out within the next decade.

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Questions 6–9

Matching Headings

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B–E.

A. Environmental and economic challenges

B. Early industrial development

C. Oil as a geopolitical tool

D. Expansion through technological advancement

E. Initial commercial breakthrough

Paragraph 1 → _____

Paragraph 3 → _____

Paragraph 4 → _____

Paragraph 5 → _____

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Questions 10–13

Summary Completion

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

The first major commercial oil well was drilled in (10) __________.

Oil initially replaced whale oil for (11) __________ purposes.

The discovery of reserves in Saudi Arabia shifted the geopolitical centre toward the (12) __________.

Although renewable energy investment is growing, oil still dominates global (13) __________.

Passage 2: Benefits of Listening to Music

For centuries, music has been regarded primarily as a cultural and artistic expression. However, scientific interest in its psychological and physiological effects has grown substantially over the past three decades. Researchers now examine how music influences cognition, emotion, and even biological processes.

One widely studied area concerns music’s impact on cognitive performance. Some experiments suggest that listening to certain types of music can temporarily enhance spatial reasoning and memory. Early studies popularised the so-called “Mozart effect,” claiming that exposure to classical compositions improved intellectual performance. Later research, however, clarified that such improvements are modest and short-lived, often linked more to mood enhancement than to lasting neurological change.

Music also plays a significant role in emotional regulation. Neuroimaging studies demonstrate that listening to preferred music activates brain regions associated with reward and dopamine release. This biochemical response can reduce stress levels and alleviate symptoms of anxiety. Hospitals increasingly incorporate music therapy to assist patients undergoing surgery or long-term treatment, reporting measurable reductions in perceived pain and stress.

Beyond individual psychology, music contributes to social cohesion. Collective musical activities, such as choirs or concerts, synchronise participants’ physiological responses, including heart rate and breathing patterns. Some scholars argue that this synchronisation fosters empathy and strengthens group identity, offering evolutionary explanations for music’s persistence across cultures.

Nevertheless, not all effects are universally positive. Excessive exposure to high-volume music can damage hearing, while certain types of background music may impair concentration during complex tasks. Furthermore, cultural context shapes musical interpretation; what is calming in one society may be unsettling in another.

Although research continues, most scholars agree that music’s influence extends beyond entertainment. Its capacity to affect cognition, emotion, and social interaction underscores its multifaceted role in human life.

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Questions 14–18

Do the following statements agree with the information in the passage?

Write:

TRUE

FALSE

NOT GIVEN

14. Scientists have only recently begun studying the effects of music.

15. The Mozart effect produces permanent increases in intelligence.

16. Music therapy is sometimes used in medical settings.

17. All cultures interpret music in the same emotional way.

18. High-volume music can cause physical harm.

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Questions 19–22

Matching Information

Which paragraph contains the following information?

A. A clarification of earlier exaggerated claims

B. A biological explanation for social bonding

C. Evidence involving brain chemistry

D. A limitation related to concentration

Paragraph 2 → _____

Paragraph 3 → _____

Paragraph 4 → _____

Paragraph 5 → _____

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Questions 23–26

Summary Completion

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

Research suggests music may enhance short-term (23) __________ performance.

Positive emotional effects are partly linked to (24) __________ release.

Group musical participation can promote (25) __________ among participants.

However, background music may reduce performance during (26) __________ tasks.

Passage 3: Urban Wildlife Conservation

Urban expansion has historically been associated with biodiversity loss. As cities expand, natural habitats are fragmented or eliminated entirely, reducing ecological resilience. Yet in recent decades, conservationists have begun to reassess the relationship between urbanisation and wildlife. Rather than viewing cities solely as ecological threats, some researchers now argue that urban environments can provide unexpected opportunities for biodiversity.

One contributing factor is habitat adaptation. Certain species, particularly birds, insects, and small mammals, demonstrate remarkable behavioural flexibility. Urban foxes, peregrine falcons, and raccoons have adjusted feeding patterns and nesting behaviours to exploit artificial structures and human food sources. These adaptations challenge the assumption that wildlife requires pristine wilderness to survive.

Municipal policy has also shifted. Green corridors, rooftop gardens, and protected wetlands within city limits aim to reconnect fragmented ecosystems. Urban planners increasingly incorporate biodiversity targets into infrastructure development. However, critics caution that such initiatives may prioritise charismatic species while neglecting less visible organisms essential to ecosystem stability.

The ecological benefits of urban wildlife are measurable. Pollinators contribute to urban agriculture, while wetlands mitigate flood risk by absorbing excess rainfall. Moreover, access to biodiverse green spaces correlates with improved mental health among residents. This intersection of ecological and social value strengthens the case for conservation within metropolitan settings.

Nevertheless, challenges persist. Urban environments expose wildlife to pollution, artificial lighting, and vehicle traffic. Genetic isolation remains a concern where habitat corridors are insufficient. Some ecologists argue that conservation efforts within cities should complement, rather than replace, large-scale protection of rural ecosystems.

Ultimately, urban wildlife conservation reflects a broader redefinition of environmental stewardship. Instead of separating human development from ecological preservation, contemporary models seek integration. The debate is no longer whether cities can support biodiversity, but how effectively they can balance competing demands.

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Questions 27–32

Matching Headings

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (1–6).

A. Risks that remain despite conservation efforts

B. Changing perceptions of cities and biodiversity

C. Evidence of social and environmental advantages

D. Behavioural flexibility of certain species

E. Policy responses and potential limitations

F. A new philosophy of environmental management

Paragraph 1 → _____

Paragraph 2 → _____

Paragraph 3 → _____

Paragraph 4 → _____

Paragraph 5 → _____

Paragraph 6 → _____

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Questions 33–36

Multiple Choice

33. What assumption is challenged by urban-adapted species?

A. Cities lack food resources

B. Wildlife requires untouched habitats

C. Urban planners ignore biodiversity

D. Predators cannot survive in cities

34. Critics of urban conservation argue that it may:

A. eliminate rural ecosystems

B. focus on visually appealing species

C. increase pollution levels

D. reduce public support

35. According to the passage, urban wetlands can:

A. prevent genetic mutation

B. increase rainfall

C. reduce flood risk

D. attract tourism

36. The writer suggests urban conservation should:

A. replace rural conservation

B. prioritise economic development

C. integrate with broader environmental protection

D. exclude human activity

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Questions 37–40

Matching Information

Which paragraph contains the following information?

37. A warning about limited genetic exchange

38. A link between biodiversity and psychological well-being

39. An example of infrastructure designed to reconnect habitats

40. A statement redefining the role of cities in conservation

ANSWER KEY + EXPLANATIONS

TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN

1. FALSE

Large-scale extraction began in the mid-19th century, not ancient times.

2. TRUE

The engine expanded petroleum’s importance exponentially.

3. FALSE

Middle East prominence came after the 1930s discovery in Saudi Arabia.

4. TRUE

The embargo exposed vulnerability of importing nations.

5. NOT GIVEN

No timeline for depletion is mentioned.

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Matching Headings

Paragraph 1 → E

Discusses 1859 well and birth of industry.

Paragraph 3 → D

Focus on technological advances and new reserves.

Paragraph 4 → C

Geopolitical conflict and oil embargo.

Paragraph 5 → A

Environmental degradation and economic uncertainty.

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Summary Completion

10. Pennsylvania

Exact reference.

11. lighting

Early demand linked to lighting.

12. Middle East

Shift after Saudi reserves discovery.

13. energy consumption

Oil dominates global energy consumption.

14. FALSE

Interest has grown over three decades, not only recently.

15. FALSE

Improvements are modest and short-lived.

16. TRUE

Hospitals incorporate music therapy.

17. FALSE

Cultural context shapes interpretation.

18. TRUE

High-volume exposure can damage hearing.

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Matching Information

Paragraph 2 → A

Clarifies exaggerated claims of Mozart effect.

Paragraph 3 → C

Discusses dopamine release and neuroimaging.

Paragraph 4 → B

Explains synchronisation and evolutionary reasoning.

Paragraph 5 → D

Mentions impaired concentration.

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Summary Completion

23. cognitive

“Impact on cognitive performance.”

24. dopamine

“Dopamine release.”

25. empathy

Synchronisation fosters empathy.

26. complex

“Impair concentration during complex tasks.”

27 → B

Reassessment of cities as ecological opportunities.

28 → D

Species adapting behaviourally.

29→ E

Policy shifts + criticism.

30 → C

Pollinators, flood control, mental health.

31→ A

Pollution, traffic, genetic isolation.

32→ F

Integration philosophy.

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Multiple Choice

33 → B

Wildlife requiring pristine wilderness is challenged.

34 → B

“Charismatic species” criticism.

35 → C

Wetlands absorb excess rainfall.

36 → C

Complement, not replace, rural ecosystems.

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Matching Information

37 → Paragraph 5

Genetic isolation concern.

38 → Paragraph 4

Improved mental health.

39 → Paragraph 3

Green corridors and rooftop gardens.

40 → Paragraph 6

Redefinition of environmental stewardship.

IELTS General Training Reading

Section 1

Passage 1

Summer Activities at London’s Kew Gardens

This summer, Kew Gardens is offering a range of outdoor and indoor activities suitable for families and individual visitors.

Family Discovery Walks take place every Saturday at 11:00 am and 2:00 pm. These guided tours last approximately 60 minutes and are included in the standard admission price. Advance booking is recommended during peak holiday periods.

Children’s Nature Workshops run on weekdays throughout July and August. Each session lasts 90 minutes and costs £8 per child. Children must be aged between 6 and 12 years. Parents are required to remain within the Gardens during the workshop but do not need to attend the session.

Evening Film Screenings will be held on selected Fridays in August. Gates open at 6:30 pm, and films begin at sunset. Tickets must be purchased online at least 48 hours in advance.

Visitors are reminded that bicycles are not permitted inside the Gardens, and picnics are allowed only in designated areas. Refunds are not provided in the event of bad weather.

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Passage 2

City Park and Ride Scheme

The City Park and Ride service operates from three outer-city car parks: Northgate, Riverside, and Hilltop.

Buses run every 15 minutes from 6:30 am to 10:00 pm, Monday to Saturday. On Sundays and public holidays, services operate every 30 minutes between 8:00 am and 6:00 pm.

A return ticket costs £3.50 for adults and £1.50 for children under 16. Children under 5 travel free. Tickets may be purchased at the parking terminal or directly from the bus driver (card payment only).

Parking at all three sites is free for Park and Ride users. However, vehicles left overnight will incur a £10 charge.

Passengers must keep their ticket for inspection throughout the journey. Lost tickets cannot be replaced.

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Questions 1–7

Complete the sentences.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

1. Family Discovery Walks last about ________.

2. Children attending workshops must be between ________ years old.

3. Parents do not need to ________ the workshop.

4. Film tickets must be bought at least ________ in advance.

5. Bicycles are not allowed inside the ________.

6. Sunday bus services run every ________.

7. Children under five travel ________.

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Questions 8–13

TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN

8. Family Discovery Walks require compulsory advance booking.

9. Parents may leave the Gardens while their child attends a workshop.

10. Film screenings start at 6:30 pm.

11. The Park and Ride operates seven days a week.

12. Passengers can pay cash on the bus.

13. Overnight parking is free for Park and Ride users.

IELTS General Training Reading

Section 2

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Passage 1

How to Organise a Successful Business Conference

Organising a business conference requires careful planning and coordination. The first stage involves defining the purpose of the event and identifying the target audience. A clear objective will determine the size, venue, and format of the conference.

Venue selection should be finalised at least six months in advance for large-scale events. Organisers must consider accessibility, technical facilities, and accommodation options for out-of-town participants. Contracts with venues should specify cancellation terms and insurance coverage.

Speakers should be confirmed early and provided with written guidelines outlining time limits and presentation requirements. It is advisable to prepare a detailed programme schedule, including breaks and networking sessions.

Promotion plays a crucial role in attendance levels. Marketing strategies may include email campaigns, professional networking platforms, and industry partnerships. Registration systems should allow participants to receive immediate confirmation and invoices.

Finally, post-event evaluation is essential. Feedback forms should be distributed to attendees to assess overall satisfaction and identify areas for improvement.

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Passage 2

Employee Handbook: Performance Review and Promotion Criteria

All permanent employees are subject to an annual performance review conducted each March. Staff who have completed less than six months of service will participate in an informal assessment but will not receive a full evaluation report.

Performance is measured against five core criteria: productivity, teamwork, punctuality, compliance with company policies, and contribution to organisational goals. Supervisors provide written feedback and may recommend professional development training where standards are not achieved.

Promotion opportunities are reviewed twice annually. To be eligible, employees must have completed at least one full performance cycle and demonstrated consistent achievement of agreed targets. Completion of mandatory training modules for the higher role is required before an application can be submitted.

Applications for promotion must be lodged with Human Resources before the internal deadline. Late submissions will not be considered. Candidates may be required to attend an interview panel. Decisions of the panel are final.

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Questions 14–20

Matching Information

Which passage contains the following information?

Write A (Conference) or B (Performance Handbook).

14. A requirement to complete training before applying

15. Advice about gathering opinions after the event

16. Reference to insurance arrangements

17. Details about informal assessment

18. Mention of marketing methods

19. A rule about late submissions

20. Guidance on confirming speakers

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Questions 21–26

Multiple Choice

21. Large conferences should secure venues

A. one month in advance

B. at least six months beforehand

C. after marketing begins

D. only once speakers are confirmed

22. Written guidelines for speakers mainly help to

A. reduce venue costs

B. clarify presentation expectations

C. increase ticket sales

D. shorten networking sessions

23. Employees with less than six months’ service

A. receive full written evaluations

B. are eligible for promotion

C. have only an informal review

D. skip assessment entirely

24. Performance is evaluated according to

A. customer complaints only

B. three core criteria

C. five specific areas

D. supervisor preference

25. Promotion eligibility requires

A. two years of service

B. completion of one review cycle

C. external recommendation

D. automatic seniority

26. According to the handbook, promotion decisions

A. can be formally appealed

B. depend on peer voting

C. are subject to HR revision

D. cannot be challenged

IELTS General Training Reading

Section 3

The Rise of Eco-Friendly Packaging in Retail

Over the past decade, the retail sector has experienced increasing pressure to reduce its environmental footprint, particularly in relation to packaging waste. Conventional materials such as single-use plastics and polystyrene were historically favoured because of their durability, lightweight properties, and low manufacturing costs. However, their resistance to decomposition has led to widespread criticism, with growing concern about their long-term accumulation in landfills and marine environments.

In response, many retailers have adopted alternative packaging solutions, including recycled cardboard, compostable bioplastics, and refillable container systems. While these initiatives are frequently promoted as evidence of corporate responsibility, their effectiveness varies. Certain biodegradable materials require specialised industrial facilities to break down properly, and if disposed of incorrectly, they may offer limited environmental benefit. Additionally, recycled materials can sometimes compromise structural strength, increasing the likelihood of damage during transportation.

Financial considerations further complicate the transition. Sustainable packaging often involves higher production costs and adjustments to established supply chains. Larger multinational companies may absorb these expenses more easily and leverage sustainability claims as part of brand positioning strategies. Smaller retailers, by contrast, report difficulty implementing similar measures without raising prices for consumers.

Regulatory intervention is accelerating change. Governments in several regions have introduced levies on plastic packaging and mandatory recycling targets. Retailers that fail to comply risk both monetary penalties and reputational harm. As environmental standards tighten and consumer expectations evolve, eco-friendly packaging is increasingly regarded not as a voluntary initiative, but as a commercial necessity.

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Questions 27–31

Matching Headings

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph.

i. Financial barriers to sustainable packaging

ii. Government influence on retail practices

iii. Early advantages of traditional materials

iv. Questioning the effectiveness of new solutions

27. Paragraph 1

28. Paragraph 2

29. Paragraph 3

30. Paragraph 4

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Questions 31–35

YES / NO / NOT GIVEN

(Do the following statements agree with the writer’s views?)

31. Traditional packaging materials were selected mainly for environmental reasons.

32. All biodegradable packaging breaks down naturally in ordinary household conditions.

33. Large companies find it easier to invest in sustainable packaging.

34. Smaller retailers universally refuse to adopt eco-friendly materials.

35. Government policies are contributing to changes in retail packaging.

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Questions 36–40

Summary Completion

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.

The retail industry has faced criticism because conventional packaging does not easily (36) __________.

Retailers have introduced materials such as recycled cardboard and (37) __________.

However, some alternatives may require specialised (38) __________ to decompose effectively.

Sustainable packaging often increases (39) __________ and alters supply chains.

Failure to comply with regulations may lead to financial penalties and (40) __________ damage.

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. 60 minutes

“last approximately 60 minutes”.

2. 6 and 12

“Aged between 6 and 12 years.”

3. attend

“do not need to attend the session.”

4. 48 hours

“at least 48 hours in advance.”

5. Gardens

“not permitted inside the Gardens.”

6. 30 minutes

“every 30 minutes between 8:00 am and 6:00 pm.”

7. free

“Children under 5 travel free.”

8. FALSE

Booking is “recommended”, not compulsory.

9. FALSE

Parents must remain within the Gardens.

10. FALSE

Gates open at 6:30 pm; films begin at sunset.

11. TRUE

Operates Monday–Saturday + Sundays + public holidays.

12. FALSE

Card payment only.

13. FALSE

Overnight vehicles incur a £10 charge.

14. B

“Completion of mandatory training modules… required before an application.”

15. A

“Feedback forms should be distributed… post-event evaluation.”

16. A

“Contracts… should specify cancellation terms and insurance coverage.”

17. B

“Informal assessment” for under six months.

18. A

“Email campaigns, networking platforms, industry partnerships.”

19. B

“Late submissions will not be considered.”

20. A

“Speakers should be confirmed early and provided with written guidelines.”

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21. B

“Venue selection… at least six months in advance.”

22. B

“Written guidelines outlining time limits and presentation requirements.”

23. C

They receive “informal assessment.”

24. C

“Five core criteria.”

25. B

“Completed at least one full performance cycle.”

26. D

“Decisions… are final.”

Matching Headings

27. iii

Paragraph 1 explains why traditional materials were favoured.

28. iv

Paragraph 2 questions how effective new materials actually are.

29. i

Paragraph 3 discusses higher production costs and supply issues.

30. ii

Paragraph 4 focuses on government levies and regulation.

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YES / NO / NOT GIVEN

31. NO

They were chosen for durability and low cost, not environmental reasons.

32. NO

The passage states they require specialised industrial facilities.

33. YES

“Larger multinational companies may absorb these expenses more easily.”

34. NOT GIVEN

It says they report difficulty, but not that they universally refuse.

35. YES

“Regulatory intervention is accelerating change.”

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Summary Completion

36. decompose

“resistance to decomposition.”

37. bioplastics

“compostable bioplastics.”

38. industrial facilities

“require specialised industrial facilities.”

39. production costs

“Sustainable packaging often involves higher production costs.”

40. reputational

“monetary penalties and reputational harm.”