IELTS Reading passages similar to 14 Feb 2026 AC/ GT
IELTS Academic Reading Passage 1: The Growth of Oil Production
The discovery and commercial exploitation of petroleum transformed the global economy more profoundly than almost any other resource in modern history. Although oil seeps were known in ancient civilisations, large-scale extraction began only in the mid-19th century, when technological innovation enabled systematic drilling. The 1859 well drilled in Pennsylvania is frequently cited as the birth of the modern oil industry, marking a shift from small-scale collection to industrial production.
Early oil demand was primarily linked to lighting. Kerosene rapidly replaced whale oil, reducing pressure on marine ecosystems while lowering household costs. However, the invention of the internal combustion engine in the late 19th century expanded petroleum’s importance exponentially. By the early 20th century, oil had become indispensable to transportation, mechanised warfare, and industrial manufacturing.
Production increased dramatically as new reserves were identified across North America, the Middle East, and later offshore environments. Advances in seismic surveying and drilling technologies allowed companies to access previously unreachable deposits. In particular, the discovery of vast reserves in Saudi Arabia during the 1930s shifted the geopolitical centre of oil production toward the Middle East.
The rapid expansion of oil output was not without volatility. Periodic oversupply caused price collapses, while geopolitical conflicts triggered sharp price spikes. The 1973 oil embargo, imposed by Arab members of OPEC, exposed the vulnerability of oil-importing nations and demonstrated the strategic power of resource control. In response, many countries began diversifying energy supplies and investing in domestic exploration.
By the late 20th century, global oil production had reached unprecedented levels. Yet concerns about resource depletion, environmental degradation, and climate change increasingly shaped policy debates. Although proven reserves remain substantial, extraction costs are rising as easily accessible fields decline. Unconventional sources such as shale oil and deepwater drilling have extended supply but introduced environmental risks and economic uncertainty.
Today, oil continues to dominate global energy consumption despite growing investment in renewable alternatives. Analysts disagree on whether production has peaked or will continue to expand due to technological innovation. What remains clear is that oil’s trajectory has been defined as much by political forces as by geological constraints.
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Questions 1–5
Do the following statements agree with the information in the passage?
Write:
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
1. Large-scale oil extraction began in ancient civilisations.
2. The internal combustion engine increased global demand for oil.
3. The Middle East became central to oil production before 1900.
4. The 1973 embargo revealed weaknesses in oil-importing countries.
5. Proven oil reserves are expected to run out within the next decade.
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Questions 6–9
Matching Headings
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B–E.
A. Environmental and economic challenges
B. Early industrial development
C. Oil as a geopolitical tool
D. Expansion through technological advancement
E. Initial commercial breakthrough
Paragraph 1 → _____
Paragraph 3 → _____
Paragraph 4 → _____
Paragraph 5 → _____
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Questions 10–13
Summary Completion
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.
The first major commercial oil well was drilled in (10) __________.
Oil initially replaced whale oil for (11) __________ purposes.
The discovery of reserves in Saudi Arabia shifted the geopolitical centre toward the (12) __________.
Although renewable energy investment is growing, oil still dominates global (13) __________.
Passage 2: Benefits of Listening to Music
For centuries, music has been regarded primarily as a cultural and artistic expression. However, scientific interest in its psychological and physiological effects has grown substantially over the past three decades. Researchers now examine how music influences cognition, emotion, and even biological processes.
One widely studied area concerns music’s impact on cognitive performance. Some experiments suggest that listening to certain types of music can temporarily enhance spatial reasoning and memory. Early studies popularised the so-called “Mozart effect,” claiming that exposure to classical compositions improved intellectual performance. Later research, however, clarified that such improvements are modest and short-lived, often linked more to mood enhancement than to lasting neurological change.
Music also plays a significant role in emotional regulation. Neuroimaging studies demonstrate that listening to preferred music activates brain regions associated with reward and dopamine release. This biochemical response can reduce stress levels and alleviate symptoms of anxiety. Hospitals increasingly incorporate music therapy to assist patients undergoing surgery or long-term treatment, reporting measurable reductions in perceived pain and stress.
Beyond individual psychology, music contributes to social cohesion. Collective musical activities, such as choirs or concerts, synchronise participants’ physiological responses, including heart rate and breathing patterns. Some scholars argue that this synchronisation fosters empathy and strengthens group identity, offering evolutionary explanations for music’s persistence across cultures.
Nevertheless, not all effects are universally positive. Excessive exposure to high-volume music can damage hearing, while certain types of background music may impair concentration during complex tasks. Furthermore, cultural context shapes musical interpretation; what is calming in one society may be unsettling in another.
Although research continues, most scholars agree that music’s influence extends beyond entertainment. Its capacity to affect cognition, emotion, and social interaction underscores its multifaceted role in human life.
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Questions 14–18
Do the following statements agree with the information in the passage?
Write:
TRUE
FALSE
NOT GIVEN
14. Scientists have only recently begun studying the effects of music.
15. The Mozart effect produces permanent increases in intelligence.
16. Music therapy is sometimes used in medical settings.
17. All cultures interpret music in the same emotional way.
18. High-volume music can cause physical harm.
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Questions 19–22
Matching Information
Which paragraph contains the following information?
A. A clarification of earlier exaggerated claims
B. A biological explanation for social bonding
C. Evidence involving brain chemistry
D. A limitation related to concentration
Paragraph 2 → _____
Paragraph 3 → _____
Paragraph 4 → _____
Paragraph 5 → _____
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Questions 23–26
Summary Completion
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.
Research suggests music may enhance short-term (23) __________ performance.
Positive emotional effects are partly linked to (24) __________ release.
Group musical participation can promote (25) __________ among participants.
However, background music may reduce performance during (26) __________ tasks.
Passage 3: Urban Wildlife Conservation
Urban expansion has historically been associated with biodiversity loss. As cities expand, natural habitats are fragmented or eliminated entirely, reducing ecological resilience. Yet in recent decades, conservationists have begun to reassess the relationship between urbanisation and wildlife. Rather than viewing cities solely as ecological threats, some researchers now argue that urban environments can provide unexpected opportunities for biodiversity.
One contributing factor is habitat adaptation. Certain species, particularly birds, insects, and small mammals, demonstrate remarkable behavioural flexibility. Urban foxes, peregrine falcons, and raccoons have adjusted feeding patterns and nesting behaviours to exploit artificial structures and human food sources. These adaptations challenge the assumption that wildlife requires pristine wilderness to survive.
Municipal policy has also shifted. Green corridors, rooftop gardens, and protected wetlands within city limits aim to reconnect fragmented ecosystems. Urban planners increasingly incorporate biodiversity targets into infrastructure development. However, critics caution that such initiatives may prioritise charismatic species while neglecting less visible organisms essential to ecosystem stability.
The ecological benefits of urban wildlife are measurable. Pollinators contribute to urban agriculture, while wetlands mitigate flood risk by absorbing excess rainfall. Moreover, access to biodiverse green spaces correlates with improved mental health among residents. This intersection of ecological and social value strengthens the case for conservation within metropolitan settings.
Nevertheless, challenges persist. Urban environments expose wildlife to pollution, artificial lighting, and vehicle traffic. Genetic isolation remains a concern where habitat corridors are insufficient. Some ecologists argue that conservation efforts within cities should complement, rather than replace, large-scale protection of rural ecosystems.
Ultimately, urban wildlife conservation reflects a broader redefinition of environmental stewardship. Instead of separating human development from ecological preservation, contemporary models seek integration. The debate is no longer whether cities can support biodiversity, but how effectively they can balance competing demands.
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Questions 27–32
Matching Headings
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (1–6).
A. Risks that remain despite conservation efforts
B. Changing perceptions of cities and biodiversity
C. Evidence of social and environmental advantages
D. Behavioural flexibility of certain species
E. Policy responses and potential limitations
F. A new philosophy of environmental management
Paragraph 1 → _____
Paragraph 2 → _____
Paragraph 3 → _____
Paragraph 4 → _____
Paragraph 5 → _____
Paragraph 6 → _____
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Questions 33–36
Multiple Choice
33. What assumption is challenged by urban-adapted species?
A. Cities lack food resources
B. Wildlife requires untouched habitats
C. Urban planners ignore biodiversity
D. Predators cannot survive in cities
34. Critics of urban conservation argue that it may:
A. eliminate rural ecosystems
B. focus on visually appealing species
C. increase pollution levels
D. reduce public support
35. According to the passage, urban wetlands can:
A. prevent genetic mutation
B. increase rainfall
C. reduce flood risk
D. attract tourism
36. The writer suggests urban conservation should:
A. replace rural conservation
B. prioritise economic development
C. integrate with broader environmental protection
D. exclude human activity
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Questions 37–40
Matching Information
Which paragraph contains the following information?
37. A warning about limited genetic exchange
38. A link between biodiversity and psychological well-being
39. An example of infrastructure designed to reconnect habitats
40. A statement redefining the role of cities in conservation
ANSWER KEY + EXPLANATIONS
TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN
1. FALSE
Large-scale extraction began in the mid-19th century, not ancient times.
2. TRUE
The engine expanded petroleum’s importance exponentially.
3. FALSE
Middle East prominence came after the 1930s discovery in Saudi Arabia.
4. TRUE
The embargo exposed vulnerability of importing nations.
5. NOT GIVEN
No timeline for depletion is mentioned.
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Matching Headings
Paragraph 1 → E
Discusses 1859 well and birth of industry.
Paragraph 3 → D
Focus on technological advances and new reserves.
Paragraph 4 → C
Geopolitical conflict and oil embargo.
Paragraph 5 → A
Environmental degradation and economic uncertainty.
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Summary Completion
10. Pennsylvania
Exact reference.
11. lighting
Early demand linked to lighting.
12. Middle East
Shift after Saudi reserves discovery.
13. energy consumption
Oil dominates global energy consumption.
14. FALSE
Interest has grown over three decades, not only recently.
15. FALSE
Improvements are modest and short-lived.
16. TRUE
Hospitals incorporate music therapy.
17. FALSE
Cultural context shapes interpretation.
18. TRUE
High-volume exposure can damage hearing.
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Matching Information
Paragraph 2 → A
Clarifies exaggerated claims of Mozart effect.
Paragraph 3 → C
Discusses dopamine release and neuroimaging.
Paragraph 4 → B
Explains synchronisation and evolutionary reasoning.
Paragraph 5 → D
Mentions impaired concentration.
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Summary Completion
23. cognitive
“Impact on cognitive performance.”
24. dopamine
“Dopamine release.”
25. empathy
Synchronisation fosters empathy.
26. complex
“Impair concentration during complex tasks.”
27 → B
Reassessment of cities as ecological opportunities.
28 → D
Species adapting behaviourally.
29→ E
Policy shifts + criticism.
30 → C
Pollinators, flood control, mental health.
31→ A
Pollution, traffic, genetic isolation.
32→ F
Integration philosophy.
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Multiple Choice
33 → B
Wildlife requiring pristine wilderness is challenged.
34 → B
“Charismatic species” criticism.
35 → C
Wetlands absorb excess rainfall.
36 → C
Complement, not replace, rural ecosystems.
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Matching Information
37 → Paragraph 5
Genetic isolation concern.
38 → Paragraph 4
Improved mental health.
39 → Paragraph 3
Green corridors and rooftop gardens.
40 → Paragraph 6
Redefinition of environmental stewardship.
IELTS General Training Reading
Section 1
Passage 1
Summer Activities at London’s Kew Gardens
This summer, Kew Gardens is offering a range of outdoor and indoor activities suitable for families and individual visitors.
Family Discovery Walks take place every Saturday at 11:00 am and 2:00 pm. These guided tours last approximately 60 minutes and are included in the standard admission price. Advance booking is recommended during peak holiday periods.
Children’s Nature Workshops run on weekdays throughout July and August. Each session lasts 90 minutes and costs £8 per child. Children must be aged between 6 and 12 years. Parents are required to remain within the Gardens during the workshop but do not need to attend the session.
Evening Film Screenings will be held on selected Fridays in August. Gates open at 6:30 pm, and films begin at sunset. Tickets must be purchased online at least 48 hours in advance.
Visitors are reminded that bicycles are not permitted inside the Gardens, and picnics are allowed only in designated areas. Refunds are not provided in the event of bad weather.
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Passage 2
City Park and Ride Scheme
The City Park and Ride service operates from three outer-city car parks: Northgate, Riverside, and Hilltop.
Buses run every 15 minutes from 6:30 am to 10:00 pm, Monday to Saturday. On Sundays and public holidays, services operate every 30 minutes between 8:00 am and 6:00 pm.
A return ticket costs £3.50 for adults and £1.50 for children under 16. Children under 5 travel free. Tickets may be purchased at the parking terminal or directly from the bus driver (card payment only).
Parking at all three sites is free for Park and Ride users. However, vehicles left overnight will incur a £10 charge.
Passengers must keep their ticket for inspection throughout the journey. Lost tickets cannot be replaced.
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Questions 1–7
Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
1. Family Discovery Walks last about ________.
2. Children attending workshops must be between ________ years old.
3. Parents do not need to ________ the workshop.
4. Film tickets must be bought at least ________ in advance.
5. Bicycles are not allowed inside the ________.
6. Sunday bus services run every ________.
7. Children under five travel ________.
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Questions 8–13
TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN
8. Family Discovery Walks require compulsory advance booking.
9. Parents may leave the Gardens while their child attends a workshop.
10. Film screenings start at 6:30 pm.
11. The Park and Ride operates seven days a week.
12. Passengers can pay cash on the bus.
13. Overnight parking is free for Park and Ride users.
IELTS General Training Reading
Section 2
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Passage 1
How to Organise a Successful Business Conference
Organising a business conference requires careful planning and coordination. The first stage involves defining the purpose of the event and identifying the target audience. A clear objective will determine the size, venue, and format of the conference.
Venue selection should be finalised at least six months in advance for large-scale events. Organisers must consider accessibility, technical facilities, and accommodation options for out-of-town participants. Contracts with venues should specify cancellation terms and insurance coverage.
Speakers should be confirmed early and provided with written guidelines outlining time limits and presentation requirements. It is advisable to prepare a detailed programme schedule, including breaks and networking sessions.
Promotion plays a crucial role in attendance levels. Marketing strategies may include email campaigns, professional networking platforms, and industry partnerships. Registration systems should allow participants to receive immediate confirmation and invoices.
Finally, post-event evaluation is essential. Feedback forms should be distributed to attendees to assess overall satisfaction and identify areas for improvement.
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Passage 2
Employee Handbook: Performance Review and Promotion Criteria
All permanent employees are subject to an annual performance review conducted each March. Staff who have completed less than six months of service will participate in an informal assessment but will not receive a full evaluation report.
Performance is measured against five core criteria: productivity, teamwork, punctuality, compliance with company policies, and contribution to organisational goals. Supervisors provide written feedback and may recommend professional development training where standards are not achieved.
Promotion opportunities are reviewed twice annually. To be eligible, employees must have completed at least one full performance cycle and demonstrated consistent achievement of agreed targets. Completion of mandatory training modules for the higher role is required before an application can be submitted.
Applications for promotion must be lodged with Human Resources before the internal deadline. Late submissions will not be considered. Candidates may be required to attend an interview panel. Decisions of the panel are final.
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Questions 14–20
Matching Information
Which passage contains the following information?
Write A (Conference) or B (Performance Handbook).
14. A requirement to complete training before applying
15. Advice about gathering opinions after the event
16. Reference to insurance arrangements
17. Details about informal assessment
18. Mention of marketing methods
19. A rule about late submissions
20. Guidance on confirming speakers
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Questions 21–26
Multiple Choice
21. Large conferences should secure venues
A. one month in advance
B. at least six months beforehand
C. after marketing begins
D. only once speakers are confirmed
22. Written guidelines for speakers mainly help to
A. reduce venue costs
B. clarify presentation expectations
C. increase ticket sales
D. shorten networking sessions
23. Employees with less than six months’ service
A. receive full written evaluations
B. are eligible for promotion
C. have only an informal review
D. skip assessment entirely
24. Performance is evaluated according to
A. customer complaints only
B. three core criteria
C. five specific areas
D. supervisor preference
25. Promotion eligibility requires
A. two years of service
B. completion of one review cycle
C. external recommendation
D. automatic seniority
26. According to the handbook, promotion decisions
A. can be formally appealed
B. depend on peer voting
C. are subject to HR revision
D. cannot be challenged
IELTS General Training Reading
Section 3
The Rise of Eco-Friendly Packaging in Retail
Over the past decade, the retail sector has experienced increasing pressure to reduce its environmental footprint, particularly in relation to packaging waste. Conventional materials such as single-use plastics and polystyrene were historically favoured because of their durability, lightweight properties, and low manufacturing costs. However, their resistance to decomposition has led to widespread criticism, with growing concern about their long-term accumulation in landfills and marine environments.
In response, many retailers have adopted alternative packaging solutions, including recycled cardboard, compostable bioplastics, and refillable container systems. While these initiatives are frequently promoted as evidence of corporate responsibility, their effectiveness varies. Certain biodegradable materials require specialised industrial facilities to break down properly, and if disposed of incorrectly, they may offer limited environmental benefit. Additionally, recycled materials can sometimes compromise structural strength, increasing the likelihood of damage during transportation.
Financial considerations further complicate the transition. Sustainable packaging often involves higher production costs and adjustments to established supply chains. Larger multinational companies may absorb these expenses more easily and leverage sustainability claims as part of brand positioning strategies. Smaller retailers, by contrast, report difficulty implementing similar measures without raising prices for consumers.
Regulatory intervention is accelerating change. Governments in several regions have introduced levies on plastic packaging and mandatory recycling targets. Retailers that fail to comply risk both monetary penalties and reputational harm. As environmental standards tighten and consumer expectations evolve, eco-friendly packaging is increasingly regarded not as a voluntary initiative, but as a commercial necessity.
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Questions 27–31
Matching Headings
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph.
i. Financial barriers to sustainable packaging
ii. Government influence on retail practices
iii. Early advantages of traditional materials
iv. Questioning the effectiveness of new solutions
27. Paragraph 1
28. Paragraph 2
29. Paragraph 3
30. Paragraph 4
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Questions 31–35
YES / NO / NOT GIVEN
(Do the following statements agree with the writer’s views?)
31. Traditional packaging materials were selected mainly for environmental reasons.
32. All biodegradable packaging breaks down naturally in ordinary household conditions.
33. Large companies find it easier to invest in sustainable packaging.
34. Smaller retailers universally refuse to adopt eco-friendly materials.
35. Government policies are contributing to changes in retail packaging.
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Questions 36–40
Summary Completion
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.
The retail industry has faced criticism because conventional packaging does not easily (36) __________.
Retailers have introduced materials such as recycled cardboard and (37) __________.
However, some alternatives may require specialised (38) __________ to decompose effectively.
Sustainable packaging often increases (39) __________ and alters supply chains.
Failure to comply with regulations may lead to financial penalties and (40) __________ damage.
ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. 60 minutes
“last approximately 60 minutes”.
2. 6 and 12
“Aged between 6 and 12 years.”
3. attend
“do not need to attend the session.”
4. 48 hours
“at least 48 hours in advance.”
5. Gardens
“not permitted inside the Gardens.”
6. 30 minutes
“every 30 minutes between 8:00 am and 6:00 pm.”
7. free
“Children under 5 travel free.”
8. FALSE
Booking is “recommended”, not compulsory.
9. FALSE
Parents must remain within the Gardens.
10. FALSE
Gates open at 6:30 pm; films begin at sunset.
11. TRUE
Operates Monday–Saturday + Sundays + public holidays.
12. FALSE
Card payment only.
13. FALSE
Overnight vehicles incur a £10 charge.
14. B
“Completion of mandatory training modules… required before an application.”
15. A
“Feedback forms should be distributed… post-event evaluation.”
16. A
“Contracts… should specify cancellation terms and insurance coverage.”
17. B
“Informal assessment” for under six months.
18. A
“Email campaigns, networking platforms, industry partnerships.”
19. B
“Late submissions will not be considered.”
20. A
“Speakers should be confirmed early and provided with written guidelines.”
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21. B
“Venue selection… at least six months in advance.”
22. B
“Written guidelines outlining time limits and presentation requirements.”
23. C
They receive “informal assessment.”
24. C
“Five core criteria.”
25. B
“Completed at least one full performance cycle.”
26. D
“Decisions… are final.”
Matching Headings
27. iii
Paragraph 1 explains why traditional materials were favoured.
28. iv
Paragraph 2 questions how effective new materials actually are.
29. i
Paragraph 3 discusses higher production costs and supply issues.
30. ii
Paragraph 4 focuses on government levies and regulation.
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YES / NO / NOT GIVEN
31. NO
They were chosen for durability and low cost, not environmental reasons.
32. NO
The passage states they require specialised industrial facilities.
33. YES
“Larger multinational companies may absorb these expenses more easily.”
34. NOT GIVEN
It says they report difficulty, but not that they universally refuse.
35. YES
“Regulatory intervention is accelerating change.”
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Summary Completion
36. decompose
“resistance to decomposition.”
37. bioplastics
“compostable bioplastics.”
38. industrial facilities
“require specialised industrial facilities.”
39. production costs
“Sustainable packaging often involves higher production costs.”
40. reputational
“monetary penalties and reputational harm.”
